NS0-192 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

A manager wants a volume to have a guaranteed 300 MB/s of read performance. You explain that you cannot do this on FAS storage running ONTAP 9.3 backed by 10,000 RPM disks.

What is the reason for this response?

A. Throughput floor apply to only ISCSI access.
B. Throughput floors can only guarantee up to 125 MB/s.
C. Throughput floors required a license
D. Throughput floors required AFF.

Answer: D

Question No 2:

A customer can no longer connect to a data LIF upgrading from ONTAP 9.1 to ONTAP 9.2. A packet trace shows the data LIF is responding to the initial SYN with a SYN/ACK. This SNY/ACK never makes it to the client.

In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. ONTAP 9.2 does not have IP FastPath.
B. ONTAP 9.2 does not have Large Receive Offload.
C. ONTAP 9.2 does nothave LACP.
D. ONTAP 9.2 does not have TCP segmentation Offload.

Answer: A

Question No 3:

Which two statements are true about epsilon in a 4-node cluster? (Choose two.)

A. Epsilon is used as a tie-breaker for determining a quorum.
B. Epsilon is authentically assigned to the first node when a cluster is created.
C. Epsilon is used for determining the up node in failover.
D. Epsilon is automatically assigned to the last node added to a cluster.

Answer: A B

Question No 4:

You are adding additional node to a single-node cluster.
Which two actions be performed after this upgrade? (Choose two.)

A. Verify that HA is enabled.
B. Verify that epsilon is not assigned.
C. Verify that epsilon is assigned
D. Verify that HA is disabled

Answer: A C

Question No 5:

A customer has a company –wide power outage scheduled and needs to gracefully power off a 2-node cluster. In this scenario, which two steps should be performed? (Choose two.)

A. Use the halt –node –skip-lif-migration-before-shutdown true –inhibit-takeover true command.
B. Invoke and AutoSupport message to indicate aplanned maintenance time.
C. Use OnCommand system Manager to half the controllers.
D. Use the half –node * command

Answer: A B

2V0-602PSE Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

Which three options are required to use vSphere DRS features successfully? (Choose three.)

A. Shared Storage
B. Processor Compatibility
C. Datastore Cluster
D. Shared VMFS Volume
E. Resource Pools

Answer: A B D

Question No 2:

An administrator has just completed performing an interactive installation of ESXi 6.x and is booting the host. How is the network initially configured?

A. The network is configured by Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA).
B. The network is configured based on the settings detected in DNS.
C. The network is configured with the address as specified in the installer.
D. The network is automatically configured by DHCP.

Answer: D

Question No 3:

What are three valid disk configurations for the vSphere Data Protection 6.x Appliance? (Choose three.)

A. 500GB
B. 1TB
C. 1.5TB
D. 2TB
E. 4TB

Answer: A B D

Question No 4:

A vSphere Administrator has been tasked with configuring Jumbo Frames and the current environment is based on vSphere Standard Switch.
Which three steps are required? (Choose three.)

A. Verify the physical switches in the environment have been properly configured.
B. Configure the Switch MTU.
C. Configure the Port Group MTU.
D. Migrate to a Distributed vSwitch.
E. Configure the Distributed vSwitch MTU.

Answer: A B C

More 2V0-602PSE exam dumps questions answers are available on Dumpspedia.

QSDA2018 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

A company builds several apps to help analyze product performance

• Each app is for a specific business area: Marketing,Sales, or Production
• Users must see updated data daily
• Data is taken from the enterprise data warehouse (EDW)
• Change requests for the data warehouse take approximately 6 weeks
• One of the dimensions used across all of the apps is product group
• There are six different product groups

To provide users with an intuitive way of working with data, the colors that represent the product groups must be the same in all apps The RGB color codes for each product group will be provided to the data architect by e-mail
How should the data architect add consistent colors for the product group dimension that are easy to maintain?

A. Add the color codes using a text file
B. Add the color codes using expressions
C. Add the color codes in the EDW
D. Add the color codes using variables

Answer: A

Question No 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

The data model shown has a synthetic key for information that contains actual sales and budget sales for a multi-national company As a business requirement, users must be able to drill down by department and country. Datajnust not be lost. Due to data quality issues, some departments are NOT included in the Sales and Budget tables.

The data architect needs a method to eliminate synthetic keys that generates the fastest performing data model Which method should the data architect use?

A. A link table to associate the two tables

B. A forced concatenation statement

C. Field aliases or comment out redundant fields

D. A Left Join statement in the script

Answer: A

Question No 3:

Ahealthcare organization needs anapp to track patient encounters, patient lab orders, and patient medications.

• Encounters, lab orders, and medication data are maintained in three separate tables linked by PatientID
• PatientID values in all three tables are completely accurate
• Patients may have encounters without lab orders or medications
The data architect needs to make sure that the count of patient lab orders is correct. Which method should the data architect to meet this requirement?

A. Load all three tables, create a copy of PatientID in the lab orders table as LabPatientID, and use Count(DistinctLabPatientID)
B. Load all three tables and use Count{Distinct PatientID)
C. Load all three tables and use Count(PatientlD)
D. Load all three tables, create a copy of PatientID in the lab orders table as LabPatientID, and use Count(LabPatientlD)

Answer: A

Question No 4:

Refer to the exhibit

A chart for monthly hospital admissions and discharges incorrectly displays the month and year values on the x-axis. The date format for the source data field “Common Date” is M/D/YYYY This format was used in a calculated field named “Month-Year” in the data manager when the data model was first built.

Which expression should the data architect use to fix this issue?

A.  Date (MonthsStart ([Common Dace]),’MMM-YYYY’

B.  Date(MonthStart([Common Date]), •MMM-YYYY’)

C.  Date([Common Date],’MMM-YYYY’)

D.  Date(InMonth([Conmon Date]),’MMM-YYYY’)

Answer: D

Question No 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

One of the data sources a data architect must add for a newly developed app is an Excel spreadsheet The Region field only has values for the first record for the region. The data architect must perform atransformation so that each rowcontains the correct Region. Which function should the data architect implement to resolve this issue?

A.  CrossTable

B.  IntervalMatch

C.  Above

D.  Previous

Answer: B

DCA Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

Which of the following commands wifi automatically create a volume when a container is started?

A. ‘docker container run –name nginxtest –volumes=/app nginx’
B. ‘docker container run –name nginxtest -v /app:mount nginx’
C. ‘docker container run –name nginxtest –volumes myvol:/app:new nginx’
D. ‘docker container run –name nginxtest -v myvol:/app nginx’

Answer: A

Question No 2:

Which of the following are types of namespaces used by Docker to provide isolation? (Choose 2.)

A. Host
B. Network
C. Process ID
D. Authentication
E. Storage

Answer: B, C

Question No 3:

Following the principle of least privilege, which of the following methods can be used to securely grnt access to the specific user to communicate to a Docker engine? (Choose two.)

A. Utilize the ‘–host’ option to the Docker daemon to listen on port 2375 over TCP on all interfaces
B. Utilize openssl to create TLS client and server certificates, configuring the Docker engine to use with mutual TLS over TCP.
C. Utilize the ‘–host’ option to the Docker daemon to listen on port 2375 over TCP on localhost
D. Give the user root access to the server to allow them to run Docker commands as root.
E. Add the user to the ‘docker’ group on the server or specify the grouè with the ‘–group’ Docker daemon option.

Answer: B, E

Question No 4:

Which one of the following commands will result in the volume being removed automatically once the container has exited?

A. ‘docker run –del -v /foo busybox’
B. ‘docker run –read-only -v /foo busybox’
C. ‘docker run –rm -v /foo busybox’
D. ‘docker run –remove -v /foo busybox’

Answer: C

Question No 5:

A container named “analytics” that stores results in a volume called “data” was created. docker run -d –name=analytics -v data:/data app1 How are the results accessed in “data” with another container called “app2”?

A. docker run -d –name=reports –volume=data app2
B. docker run -d –name=reports –volumes-from=analytics app2
C. docker run -d –name=reports –volume=app1 app2
D. docker run -d –name=reports –mount=app1 app2

Answer: B

CISSP Exam Guide – No One Else Will Tell You This

Our Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) training course intends to provide delegates using a theory-based method of understanding the Information Systems security procedure and how to employ this procedure practically to real-life situations.

The material of the program is mainly centred on the eight basic domains of Information Security, which encircle what delegates will need to learn more about the subject. Despite being completely theory-based, the CISSP certificate underscores the requirement of practically applying what’s learned and efficiently trains delegates to get this done. It’s likely to retake the course and examination, or you are able to make and submit 120 Continuing Professional Education credits (CPEs) throughout the 3 decades.

Wish to Be a CISSP? Here is everything you want to know, like how hard the examination is, strategies for studying, what is required to get a passing score and much more. It gives information security professionals with the objective measure of proficiency and a global recognized standard of accomplishment. The CISSP credential suits mid- and – senior-level supervisors that are working towards, or have already achieved, places like CISO, CSO or older safety engineer.

What causes this eligibility more prestigious is you need to have a minimum of five decades of accumulative, paid fulltime work experience about 2 or more of the eight domain names in the examination. Possessing a four-year school diploma or regional credential from (ISC)2 will lessen the necessary expertise by one year.

The objective of the CISSP examination is to test your technical abilities, like executing and maintaining a safety program, or some other activities that would be done by a safety auditor, systems engineer, CISO, or safety architect.

Scheduling will depend completely on your degree of preparedness to the CISSP examination. Give yourself the time to research and finish as many practice questions as possible prior to taking the exam. It’s a great idea to get used to the location of this examination centre; be certain that you are ready for visitors and other factors that may impact travel time into the testing centre. Arriving early also guarantees that any identification difficulties or questions may be addressed without interfering with your certificate effort.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Exam

CompTIA Security+ is a international certificate that validates the research skills you want to do core safety purposes and pursue a IT security livelihood.

CompTIA Security+ is the primary security certificate IT professionals must make. It determines that the core knowledge needed of any cybersecurity function and gives a springboard into intermediate-level cybersecurity jobs. Safety + comprises best practices in hands on trouble-shooting to guarantee safety professionals possess practical security problem-solving abilities. Cybersecurity professionals with Safety + understand how to deal with safety incidents — not only identify them.

The course covers all the CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 objective domains:

1.0 Threats, Attacks, and Vulnerabilities 21%

2.0 Technologies and Tools 22%

3.0 Architecture and Design 15%

4.0 Identity and Access Management 16%

5.0 Risk Management 14%

6.0 Cryptography and PKI 12%

The CompTIA Security+ examination will ensure that the successful candidate has the knowledge and techniques needed to set up and configure systems to protect networks, applications, and devices; execute hazard analysis and react with proper mitigation techniques; engage in risk mitigation tasks; and function with a knowledge of related policies, legislation, and regulations. It is made to be a continuing validation of your experience and also a tool to broaden your skillset.

It is also the ace up your sleeve if you are prepared to choose another step on your career. The CE program permits you to expand your certificate in three-year periods through training and activities which relate to the material of your certificate.

Here is the upgraded class that covers the aims for its new Security+ 501 examination, established in November 2017. The prior 401 examination will last to be provided through July 31st, 2018. Should you choose this program, make certain to register to your corresponding 501 examination.

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese
Retirement Usually three years after launch

This class covers all you want to know to pass your CompTIA Security+ Certificate SY0-501 Exam. The first intention of the program is to make you a great IT security technician and, in the process, be certain you’re prepared to pass the CompTIA Security+ examination. This training course is over 10 hours in length comprising over 80 video assignments.

Safety + is an internationally recognized certification, verifying a person’s basic security knowledge and techniques. This movie training will teach one to encourage the principles of ethics, confidentiality, and accessibility. Learn how to detect danger, take part in risk reduction, and preserve infrastructure, advice, and operational safety since you prepare for CompTIA’s Security+ SY0-501 examination.